Peace,
On Page 7, of The Frederick Douglass Encyclopedia, it states: "Douglass was unconvinced that living and working in Africa would appreciably be more effective in abolishing the slave trade, because the "savage chiefs" in West Africa were little different than slave traders in America in terms of morality and economic interests."
Of course Frederick Douglass was right, about the fact that there were African rulers that sold our ancestors to Europeans. However, I'm questioning whether Douglass was right or misinformed, when he stated that there was little difference between African slavery and European slavery, in terms of morality, considering the fact that European enslavers sought to strip us of our identities/humanity, made us breed like some of their livestock, prohibited us from becoming educated, kept us in unsanitary conditions, etc.
I welcome all feedback, thank you in advance.
Posted By: Siebra Muhammad
Wednesday, February 1st 2012 at 4:36PM
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